COLLEGE ENGLISH TEST
试 题 册
[A] [B] [C] [D]
试 卷 一
PartⅠ Listening Comprehension (20 minutes)
Directions: In this section, you will hear 10 short conversations. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. Both the conversation and the question will be spoken only once. After each question there will be a pause. During the pause, you must read the four choices marked A), B），C）and D), and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.
Example: You will hear:
You will read: A. 2 hours B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours D. 5 hours
From the conversation we know that the two are talking about some work they will start at 9 o’clock in the morning and have to finish at 2 in the afternoon. Therefore, D)“5 hours” is the correct answer. You should choose [D] on the Answer Sheet and mark it with a single line through the center.
Sample Answer [A] [B] [C]
1. A)One baby. B)Three men and two women.
C)None. D)Two women and a baby.
2. A)The woman believed the man’s story.
B)The woman didn’t believe what the man said.
C)The woman was surprised by the man’s accident.
D)The woman was deeply impressed by the story.
3. A)He thinks Chris is pleasant to work with.
B)He thinks Chris is a delightful person.
C)He thinks Chris is a light-hearted person.
D)He thinks Chris likes being the center of attention.
4. A)Three quarters of an hour. B)Ten minutes.
C)Half an hour. D)A quarter of an hour.
5. A)The band needs more practice.
B)The band members are being paid to play.
C)The band has been working hard.
D)Band practice finishes in hours.
6. A)Meet her in the auditorium.
B)Schedule the meeting for a different time.
C)Reserve a large room for the meeting.
D)Cancel the meeting.
7. A)They are talking about employment.
B)They are talking about summer jobs.
C)They are talking about school laborers.
D)They are talking about child education.
8. A)Finish the first half of the project right away.
B)Make an effort to reach a compromise.
C)Have the teacher review the project.
D)Meet his partner in the middle of town.
9. A)On the phone. B)At a hotel.
C)At a restaurant. D)In a grocery store.
10. A)Looking for a job. B)Looking for an apartment.
C)Taking a suburban excursion. D)Asking the woman for her opinion.
Directions: In this section, you will hear 3 short passages. At the end of each passage, you will hear some questions. Both the passage and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.
Questions 11 to 13 are based on the passage you have just heard.
11. A)Two groups of people participated in an experiment.
B)Light-colored rooms make students do better on the exam.
C)People in nice-looking rooms tend to be biased in their opinion.
D)The effects of a room’s general appearances and its wall color on visitors.
12. A)They will make visitors walk faster.
B)They will make visitors cover more area.
C)They will make visitors appreciate the exhibits more.
D)They will make visitors find the subjects on display less beautiful.
13. A)Environment will have effects on people’s movements.
B)Different colors and rooms will stimulate different reactions.
C)Students should take an exam in a comfortable room painted dark brown.
D)Beautiful decorations and a white color will cause people to react slowly to objects in the room.
Questions 14 to 16 are based on the passage you have just heard.
14. A)An introduction of British table manners.
B)Japanese eat noisily to show their enjoyment.
C)The importance of the details of table manners.
D)Different countries have different table manners.
15. A)You eat your meal with your left hand.
B)You make noises in drinking soup.
C)You keep your elbows or hands away from the table.
D)You lift your soup bowl to your mouth.
16. A)To make noises in eating.
B)To eat with your left hand.
C)To put your hands on the table during the meal.
D)To eat your meal quickly and contentedly.
Questions 17 to 20 are based on the passage you have just heard.
17. A)A driver’s license. B)A passport.
C)An international credit card. D)A deposit.
18. A)Turing right at a red light.
B)Driving in freeways without a local driver’s license.
C)Passing a school bus that is letting off children.
D)All of the above.
19. A)The size of the country.
B)Large areas of virgin forest.
C)The rich natural resources of the land.
D)Wild animals and plants.
20. A)Because nearly 1,000 million acres of land was burned off.
B)Because natural resources are being used up.
C)Because animals and plants are in danger of extinction.
D)Because natural beauty of the land would be ruined.
Questions 21 to 25 are based on the following passage.
Many ecologists and demographers predict that an ecological disaster is on the way, most likely in the form of a devastating famine in the Third World. Although everyone is not so pessimistic, there is no disagreement about the fact that we have been destroying the very ecosystems that sustain us. Such irrational behavior is not easy to explain. Its complex causes have roots stretching far back into history. Ironically, the same characteristics that have made humans such a successful species—high intelligence and an enormous ability to manipulate the environment—have also contributed to the development of the technology and cultural orientation that are now threatening many forms of life on earth.
More and more people are coming to realize that the magnificent technological advances that have made life so much more comfortable have a dark side as well. As we have seen, agricultural technology has brought havoc to the biosphere; industrial technology is polluting the environment; and military technology has for the first time in history given humanity the means to destroy itself. And even if we do not destroy ourselves directly with nuclear bombs, we may do it indirectly by disrupting ecosystems, food chains, and the whole life-supporting system.
Condemning technology as though it were separated from the humans who use it is both pointless and misleading. Every group of humans，from prehistoric times to the present, has used some form of technology to meet its needs for food, clothing, and shelter. Only a few of those technologies, however, have caused serious damage to the environment. The real culprit is exploitative technology, designed to produce the greatest immediate rewards without regard to the long-term consequences to the environment of or the quality of human life.
This problem is nothing new. Although the earliest hunting and gathering did little damage to the environment, the human race has been using exploitative technologies for thousands of years. Historians now believe that an environmental crisis caused by unsound farming techniques contributed to the collapse of many of the agricultural societies of the past; but the overall environmental damage done by industrial societies is far worse. For one thing, their technology is much more powerful and sophisticated, and for another, they support many more people. Industrialization also brings about a qualitative change in the kind of technology we use. From nuclear radiation to the destruction of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere, the cornucopia（象征丰饶的羊角，丰饶）of modern science has produced problems undreamed of by our ancestors.
21. Many ecologists predict, _______.
A. ecological disasters will not happen soon
B. ecological disasters will never happen in the industrial countries
C. disastrous famines are likely to happen in the underdeveloped countries
D. disastrous floods are likely to happen in the Third World
22. Exploitative technology _______.
A. is the modern product of industrialization
B. is the main cause for the environmental crisis
C. is designed to make full of our resources
D. is designed to improve the quality of human life
23. It can be inferred from the passage that _____.
A. unsound farming techniques are more destructive than Industrial technology
B. modern science has greatly improved human life
C. the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere was formerly well preserved
D. it is the technology we use that is responsible for the environmental crisis
24. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The coming of environmental disaster.
B. The ill effects of industrialization.
C. The development of modern technology.
D. The origin of environmental crisis.
25. The tone of the passage can be described as _____.
A. pessimistic B. optimistic
C. concerned D. indifferent
Questions 26 to 30 are based on the following passage.
Hawaii’s native minority is demanding a greater degree of sovereignty over its own affairs. But much of the archipelago’s political establishment which includes the White Americans who dominated until the Second World War and people of Japanese, Chinese and Filipino origin, is opposed to the idea.
The islands were annexed by the US in 1898 and since then Hawaii’s native peoples have fared worse than any of its other ethnic groups. They make up over 60 percent of the state’s homeless, suffer higher levels of unemployment and their life span is five years less than the average Hawaiians. They are the only major US native group without some degree of autonomy.
But a sovereignty advisory committee set up by Hawaii’s first native governor, John Waihee, has given the natives’ cause a major boost by recommending that the Hawaiian natives decide by themselves whether to re-establish a sovereign Hawaiian nation.
However, the Hawaiian natives are not united in their demands. Some just want greater autonomy within the state—as enjoyed by many American Indian natives over matters such as education. This is position supported by the Office of Hawaiian Affairs(OHA), a state agency set up in 1978 to represent the natives’ interests and which has now become the moderate face of the native sovereignty movement. More ambitious is the Ka Lahui group, which declared itself a new nation in 1987 and wants full, official independence from the US.
But if Hawaiian natives are given greater autonomy, it is far from clear how many people this will apply to. The state authorities only count those as native people with more than 50 percent Hawaiian blood.
Native demands are not just based on political grievances, though. They also want their claim on 660,000 hectares of Hawaiian crown land to be accepted. It is on this issue that native groups are facing most opposition from the state authorities. In 1933, the state government paid the OHA US＄136 million in back rent on the crown land and many officials say that by accepting this payment the agency has given up its claims to legally own the land. The OHA has vigorously disputed this.
26. Hawaii’s native minority refers to______.
A. Hawaii’s ethnic groups
B. people of Filipino origin
C. the Ka Lahui group
D. people with 50% Hawaiian blood
27. Which of the following statements is true of the Hawaiian natives?
A. Sixty percent of them are homeless or unemployed.
B. Their life span is 5 years shorter than average Americans.
C. Their life is worse than that of other ethnic groups in Hawaii.
D. They are the only native group without sovereignty.
28. Which of the following is NOT true of John Waihee?
A. He is Hawaii’s first native governor.
B. He has set up a sovereignty advisory committee.
C. He suggested the native people decide for themselves.
D. He is leading the local independent movement.
29. Which of the following groups holds a less radical attitude on the matter of sovereignty?
A. American Indian natives.
B. Office of Hawaiian Affairs.
C. The Ka Lahui group.
D. The Hawaiian natives.
30. Various native Hawaiians demand all the following EXCEPT_______.
A. a greater autonomy within the state
B. more back rent on the crown land
C. a claim on the Hawaiian crown land
D. full independence from the US
Questions 31 to 35 are based on the following passage.
Today’s cops are under far more inspection than their predecessors were, thanks in part to governmental soul-searching suggesting that police behavior had much to do with touching off the race riots of the late 1960s. Today, more than 75 percent of the major metropolitan police departments have some sort of civilian review agency. And top cops are watching more closely, too. “It’s unbelievable how they Monday-morning quarterback（事后指责）you,” says Dallas officer James, who underwent a vigorous internal investigation last spring after he fired at, but missed, a man who pointed a gun at him, “I’m out there sweating bullets, my heart’s going 95 miles per hour and some guy is sitting in an air-conditioned office telling me what I should have done.”
Part of that inspection is rooted in departmental efforts to head off lawsuits. Cops have become an increasingly inviting target for litigation. For example, in 1972, the City of Los Angeles paid＄553,340 in judgments and settlements for the actions of its police department. Last year, Los Angeles paid＄6.4 million.
The fear of being sued is never far from officer’s minds. It certainly wasn’t for FBI agent Ed Mireles, the hero of the bureau’s bloody 1986 Miami shoot-out in which two agents were killed and five were wounded. Before the shooting began, the car in which Mireles rode was crashing and banging against the vehicle driven by the two alleged bank robbers. Mireles could almost reach out and touch the driver. “Even today, I keep running that back,” he says. “Knowing what I know now, I would have brought my 12-gauge shotgun to bear on those two sons of bitches, and taken them out right there. What flashed through my mind was the legal consequences, the responsibility issue. But that would have ended the whole thing before it got started.” As it turned out, two of his fellow agents were killed before a wounded Mireles killed both assailants.
An even bigger problem is that the criminal-justice system itself is now designed to break cops’ hearts. For every 100 felony arrests 43 are typically dismissed or not prosecuted. Of the remaining 57, 54 are disposed of by guilty plea. Only 3 go to trial. And of those, 1 is acquitted (宣判无罪) and 2 are found guilty. Moreover, of the 56 convicted, 22 typically get probation (缓刑), 21are sentenced to a year or less of prison and only 13 are sentenced to prison for more than a year.
“We’re not making progress,” concludes Dallas officer Nabors. The greatest gift the nation could give its police is the promise that when they do their jobs well, it will amount to something. This is a war the nation can’t walk away from.
31. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Most major metropolitan police departments have some sort of civilian review agency.
B. Police behavior had actually little to do with touching off the race riots of the late 1960s.
C. Top cops are inspected more closely.
D. Cops were not so seriously inspected before.
32. Dallas officer James was under a vigorous internal investigation because_______.
A. he killed a man who pointed a gun at him
B. he was out there sweating bullets
C. he was involved in the race riots of the late 1960s
D. he fired at a man who nevertheless escaped
33. Police authorities make the inspections______.
A. out of a fear of lawsuits
B. to reduce the victims
C. under the pressure from the cops
D. in order to punish criminals heavily
34. From the paragraph 3 about FBI agent Ed Mireles we can infer that______.
A. he was very proud of what he had done in the action
B. he felt guilty for not having killed the criminals before they killed his colleagues
C. he was angry that his fear of being sued had prevented him from doing better
D. he would have been punished if he had not been wounded
35. Why is the criminal-justice system said to break cops’ hearts?
A. Because this system gives cops the impression that their heroic actions often amount to nothing.
B. Because this system is designed to help criminals.
C. Because this system punishes policemen rather than criminals.
D. Because this system is closely inspected by the police.
Questions 36 to 40 are based on the following passage.
From good reading we can derive pleasure, companionship, experience, and instruction. A good book may absorb our attention so completely that for the time being we forget our surroundings and even our identity. Reading good books is one of the greatest pleasures in life. It increases our contentment when we are cheerful, and lessens our troubles when we are sad. Whatever may be our main purpose in reading, our contact with good books should never fail to give us enjoyment and satisfaction.
With a good book in our hands we need never be lonely. Whether the characters portrayed are taken from real life or are purely imaginary, they may become our companions and friends. In the pages of books we can walk with the wise and the good of all lands and all times. The people we meet in books may delight us either because they resemble human friends whom we hold dear or because they present unfamiliar types whom we are glad to welcome as new acquaintances. Our human friends sometimes may bore us, but the friends we make in books need never weary us with their company. By turning the page we can dismiss them without any fear of hurting their feelings. When human friends desert us, good books are always ready to give us friendship, sympathy, and encouragement.
One of the most valuable gifts bestowed by books is experience. Few of us can travel far from home or have a wide range of experiences, but all of us can lead varied lives through the pages of books. Whether we wish to escape from the seemingly dull realities of everyday life or whether we long to visit some far-off place, a book will help us when nothing else can. To travel by book we need no bank account to pay our way; no airship or ocean liner or stream-lined train to transport us; no passport to enter the land of our heart’s desire. Through books we may get the thrill of hazardous adventure without danger. We can climb lofty mountains, brave the perils of an Antarctic winter, or cross the scorching sands of the desert, all without hardship. In books we may visit the studios of Hollywood; we may mingle with the gay throngs of the Paris boulevards; we may join the picturesque peasants in an Alpine village or the kindly natives on a South Sea island. Indeed, through books the whole world is ours for the asking. The possibilities of our literary experiences are almost unlimited. The beauties of nature, the enjoyment of music, the treasures of art, the triumphs of architecture, the marvels of engineering, are all open to the wonder and enjoyment of those who read.
36. In the first paragraph, we are told that ________.
A) we should always read good books, not bad ones
B) happiness can be derived only from reading
C) enjoyment and satisfaction can be achieved by reading good books
D) reading good books is very important in human life
37. Why is it that we sometimes forget our surroundings and even our identity while reading?
A) No one has come disturb you.
B) Everything is so quiet and calm around you.
C) The book you are reading is so interesting and attractive.
D) Your book is overdue; you are finishing it at a very fast speed.
38. According to the writer, ________ portrayed in books may become our companions and friends.
A) all characters, real and imaginary,
B) only real characters
C) only imaginary characters
D) none of the characters
39. How would you account for the fact that people like their acquaintances in books even more?
A) They resemble human friends exactly.
B) They are unfamiliar types we like.
C) They never desert us.
D) They never hurt our feelings.
40. “…the whole world is our for the asking” implies that ________.
A) in books the world is more accessible to us
B) we can ask to go anywhere in the world
C) we can make a claim to everything in this world
D) we can make a round-the-world trip free of charge
Part Ⅲ Vocabulary (20 minutes)
Directions: There are 30 incomplete sentences in this part. For each sentence there are four choices marked A), B), C), and D). Choose the ONE answer that best completes the sentence. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.
41. The ancient statue found in the cave was _______because there were no others like it.
A. unilateral B. universal C. unique D. uniform
42. Because of his strong financial position, he can receive as much _______ as he needs from the bank.
A. credential B. credit C. credibility D. credulity
43. The program deals with subjects as _______as pop music and ancient Greek drama.
A. inverse B. diverse C. adverse D. reverse
44. The _______of a piece of broken glass attracted my attention.
A. glitter B. flash C. flare D. spark
45. Nowadays, advertising costs are no longer in reasonable ________to the total cost of the product.
A. proportion B. correlation C. connection D. correspondence
46. The wealth of a country should be measured ______the health and happiness of its people as well as the material goods it can produce.
A. in line with B. in terms of C. with regard to D. by means of
47. Computer language is an artificial language that ______instructions to be executed on a computer.
A. specifies B. identifies C. intensifies D. classifies
48. The State’s department of commerce is _______to our bureau of economic department.
A. equivalent B. alike C. uniform D. likely
49. Lack of money and lack of machinery are two ______on the growth of the firm.
A. boundaries B. restraints C. confinements D. limitations
50. The ratio of the work done by the machine ______the work done on it is called the co-efficiency of the machine.
A. against B. with C. to D. for
51. Your advice would be ________valuable to him, who is now at a loss as to what to do first.
A. excellently B. excessively C. extensively D. exclusively
52. We should always bear in mind that ______decisions often result in serious consequences.
A. urgent B. instant C. prompt D. hasty
53. At first the company refused to purchase the equipment, but this decision was ______revised.
A. subsequently B. successively C. predominantly D. preliminarily
54. The words Francis Key wrote on the back of an old letter “The Star Spangled Banner” became the national _______of the United States.
A. song B. hymn C. anthem D. motto
55. The members in the testing team were quite ______and could change their schedule upon request.
A. lenient B. supple C. flexible D. gentle
56. Be careful with John; I think he has _______motives for being so generous.
A. ultimate B. ulterior C. interior D. hidden
57. We found an old blind beggar sitting outside the store, looking ______.
A. patriotic B. periodic C. pathetic D. optimistic
58. In many countries which do not have ______health agreements with your own, you will need to take out health insurance.
A. practical B. hysterical C. typical D. reciprocal
59. The machine ________the conditions that astronauts will experience in space.
A. stimulates B. simulates C. formulates D. speculates
60. She sat down at the piano and began to play a patriotic_______.
A. music B. tune C. sound D. note
61. A person who has failed to do something he is under an obligation to do has _______.
A. deducted B. deduced C. defaulted D. detached
62. Parents with only one child tend to have higher academic ________for their child.
A. aspirations B. perspiration C. inspiration D. respiration
63. In industrialized countries, absolute illiteracy was reported to have been largely_______.
A. indicated B. implicated C. fabricated D. eradicated
64. Volcanic material, _______seventeen miles into the atmosphere, created startlingly beautiful sunsets for years afterwards.
A. dispersed B. impaired C. diminished D. immersed
65. When linguists look at the languages of Europe, they quickly _______that these languages are related.
A. receive B. perceive C. deceive D. conceive
66. The _______and use of public transportation vary widely in cities around the globe.
A. vulnerability B. sensibility C. availability D. versatility
67. With regard to the issue of equal responsibility for child care, there is a ______between the wishes and the claims of parent couples.
A. differentiation B. deviation C. defect D. discrepancy
68. The current economic recession has serious _______for companies and personnel who find themselves victims of the downturn.
A. obligations B. implications C. justifications D. qualifications
69. As they became independent, most developing countries enthusiastically _______education.
A. embraced B. deemed C. inflicted D. rectified
70. A large part of human activity, particularly in relation to the environment, is _______conditions or events.
A. in response to B. in favour of C. in contrast to D. in excess of
Part IV Error Correction (15 minutes)
Directions: This part consists of a short passage. In this passage, there are altogether 10 mistakes, one in each numbered line. You may have to change a word, add a word or delete a word. Mark out the mistakes and put the corrections in the blanks provided. If you change a word, cross it out and write the correct word in the corresponding blank. If you add a word, put an insertion mark (^) in the right place and write the missing word in the blank. If you delete a word, cross it out and put a slash (/) in the blank.
Learning does not happen passively. It is an activity which a person does.
It is a task which can be attempted in various of ways, some of which are 1._____ more appropriate than others. When the material to be learned is 2._____
a brief and simple kind which is familiar with the person and of intense 3.
interest to him, effective learning usually proceeds automatically.
In the first place, the person at once relates the material to other
material which has already securely learned. Subsequently, the relevance 4._____
of the newly learned material to his interests assures its being 5.______
recalled on many occasions; and one repetition minimizes 6.______
the likelihood of remembering. Furthermore, the subsequent use 7.______
of the new material is likely to take place in a variety of contexts
and, so, the material becomes related to a narrower range of other material. 8.
Because of all this, the material is rapidly learned, long retained,
and recalled with increasingly readiness in a variety of 9._____
contexts. Without really trying, the person had fulfilled a 10._____
few important conditions of effective learning.
Part V Writing (30 minutes)
Directions: For this part, you are allowed thirty minutes to write a composition on the topic Why Stage the Reform of the CET System？ You should write at least 150 words a cording to the outline given below in Chinese.
（Part IV 和 Part V 写到试卷二答题纸上！）
1-20 CBDDC CBBCB DCBDC ABCAD
21-40 CDBDC DCDBB BDACA CCACA
41-70 CBBAA BBADC BDACC BCDBB CADAB CDBAA
1. 去掉of 2.is后加 of 3. with改为to 4.has already中间加上 been 5. assures改为 ensures 6.one 改为 the/this 7.remembering 改为 forgetting 8.narrower改为 wider
9.increasingly改为 increasing 10. had改为 has