I. Multiple Choice Questions. (50 points, 1 point for each)
Directions: In this part of the test, there are 50 unfinished statements or questions. For each of the unfinished statements or questions, four suggested answers marked, B, C and D are given. Choose the one that you think best completes the statement or answers the question. Write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space on your Answer Sheet.
1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Britain?
A. Great Britain and England are geographical names.
B. The official name of Britain is the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.
C. Britain has four political divisions on the island of Great Britain.
D. British Empire was replaced by the British Commonwealth in 1931.
2. The successful Roman invasion took place in ______, headed by ______.
A. 43 AD, the Emperor Claudius B. 43 AD, Julius Caesar
C. 55 BC, Julius Caesar D. 55 BC, the Emperor Claudius
3. During the fifth century when the Roman Empire fell, the Germanic ______ invaded and conquered Britain.
A. Angles and Celts B. Angles and Picts
C. Angles and Britons D. Angles and Saxons
4. In the year 597, England began to be Christianized. It was mainly due to the work of ______.
A. St. Augustine B. Constantine
C. Pope Gregory D. Ethelbert, king of Kent
5. ______ is regarded by many Englishmen as the foundation of English liberties.
A. The beginning of British Parliament
B. The People’s Charter
C. The Petition of Right
D. Magna Carta of 1215
6. ______ is known as “the father of the British navy” as he founded a strong fleet which first beat the Danes at sea.
A. Ethelred B. William
C. Alfred D. Edward
7. Which of the following is NOT true about “Domesday Book”?
A. It was compiled to discover how much to be called upon to pay by taxes.
B. It was so called because it seemed to the English like the Book of Doom used on Judgment Day.
C. It was completed as the result of a general survey of England.
D. it is kept in the public library in London.
8. The Lollards were ______ who had played a very important role in the Peasant Uprising of 1381.
A. poor priests and itinerant preachers B. poets and writers
C. merchants D. craftsmen
9. The word Renaissance is from ______, meaning “rebirth”, and was first applied by the ______ historian Jakob Burckhardt in 1860.
A. English, Swiss B. French, Italian
C. French, Swiss D. English, Italian
10. The significance of the Wars of the Roses was all the following EXCEPT that ______.
A. feudalism received its death blow
B. the great medieval nobility was much weakened
C. the king’s power now became limited
D. no less than 80 nobles of royal blood were killed in the wars
11. The Religious Reformation in England was led by King ______, and the direct cause was his divorce case with ______.
A. Henry VIII, Catherine of Aragon B. Henry Tudor, Elizabeth of York
C. Henry II, Eleanor of Aquitaine D. Henry I, Matilda
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Elizabeth I?
A. Elizabeth I broke Mary’s ties with Rome.
B. Elizabeth I restored her father’s independent Church of England.
C. Elizabeth I’s religious reform was a compromise of views.
D. Elizabeth I’s religious settlement was acceptable to both extreme Protestants and ardent Catholics.
13. After the Restoration, British Parliament passed a series of severe laws called ______ against the Puritans, now known as Nonconformists.
A. the Act of Succession B. the Petition of Right
C. the Clarendon Code D. the Act of Supremacy
14. The spark of the First World War was struck at Sarajevo on June 28 ______, when the ______ Crown Prince Franz Ferdinand was assassinated by a Serbian nationalist.
A. 1913, German B. 1914,Austrian
C. 1913, Bulgarian D. 1914, English
15. The leader of the House of Lords is ______.
A. the Archbishops of Canterbury B. the Monarch
C. the Prime Minister D. the Lord Chancellor
16. Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of farming in England in the late 18th and early 19th centuries?
A. Use of artificial fertilizer.
B. Introduction of new agricultural machinery.
C. The “open-field” system.
D. A system of crop rotation.
17. In the United Kingdom, police officers are NOT allowed to join ______ or to go on strike.
A. a trade union B. a political party
C. a club D. a society
18. The Church of England is NOT free to change its form of worship, as laid down in ______, without the consent of Parliament.
A. the Bill of Rights B. the Provisions of Oxford
C. the Constitutions of Clarendon D. the Book of Common Prayer.
19. The British universities are governed by ______ or by ______ and enjoy academic freedom.
A. royal charters, Act of Parliament
B. the People’s Charter, the Reform Act of 1832
C. the Great Charter, the Bill of Rights
D. the Petition of Right, the Test Act
20. Rupert Murdoch’s News International, one of the largest publishing corporations, owns the following national papers EXCEPT ______.
A. the Times B. the Sun
C. News of the World D. the Daily Telegraph
21. Now about 80% to 90% of immigration to the United States is from ______.
A. Asian and Hispanic countries
B. African countries
C. European countries
D. Central and South American countries
22. The Declaration of Independence clearly explained the political theory behind the American Revolution which came from ______.
A. the British philosopher John Locke
B. the Italian philosopher John Locke
C. the American president George Washington
D. the American statesman Thomas Jefferson
23. In 1787, all of the states except Rhode Island were represented to revise the Articles of Confederation at ______.
A. the First Continental Congress B. the Second Continental Congress
C. the Constitutional Convention D. the First US Congress
24. In 1865, ______, which banned slavery, was added to the American Constitution.
A. the Tenth Amendment B. the Thirteenth Amendment
C. the Declaration of Independence D. the Bill of Rights
25. Which of the following is NOT true about the Bill of Rights?
A. It was meant to protect the blacks for the right to vote, to use the public facilities and to enjoy the same education as white people.
B. It was the first ten amendments to the American Constitution.
C. It was not until the federalists agree to the Bill of Rights Amendments that ratification of the Constitution was assured.
D. It guarantees the basic rights for the individual such as the freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of the press, and so on.
26. As a result of ______, the territory owned by the United States almost doubled.
A. the Louisiana Purchase
B. the peace treaty with Mexico
C. the Gadsden Purchase
D. the armed uprising of the Americans in Texas
27. After the World War I, the result of the ______ was the emergence of the ______.
A. Peace Conference, Treaty of Paris
B. Paris Conference, Versailles Treaty System
C. Teheran Conference, Versailles Treaty System
D. Paris Conference, Munich Agreement
28. ______ was not an idealist, not a dreamer, so he presented to Congress his program known as ______.
A. John F. Kennedy, the New Frontier
B. Theodore Roosevelt, the New Deal
C. Woodrow Wilson, the program of New Freedom
D. Franklin D. Roosevelt, the New Deal
29. The decision of the setting-up of a world organization—the United Nations was made at the ______.
A. Yalta Conference B. Geneva Conference
C. Teheran Conference D. Paris Conference
30. The Cold War between the United States and the Soviet Union basically originated from ______.
A. their different goals during the Second World War
B. their different attitudes toward Germany
C. their different attitudes toward Eastern Europe
D. their separate concepts of postwar world order
31. The real purpose of the Marshal Plan is to ______.
A. prevent Greece and Turkey from falling into the hands of the Soviet Union
B. support any country which said it was fighting against Communism
C. help Western Europe recover from the disrupted industrial production
D. prevent Western Europe from possible Soviet expansion
32. Which of the following is NOT true about McCarthyism?
A. It was the reflection of anti-Communism on the American society.
B. It refers to the anti-Communist hysteria in the United States.
C. The court played a role in approving the lawfulness of anti-Communist activities.
D. It frightened a large number of Americans who felt it would be more dangerous to conform than to disagree with the majority.
33. During the Cuban Missile Crisis, President ______ decided to use the naval force to prevent military material and arms from getting into Cuba.
A. Franklin D. Roosevelt B. Harry Truman
C. John F. Kennedy D. Ronald Reagan
34. After the Geneva Conference, the United States replaced ______ and became the main force in providing aid for ______.
A. France, the North Vietnam government
B. France, the South Vietnam government
C. Britain, the North Vietnam government
D. Britain, the South Vietnam government
35. After the Watergate scandal happened in 1972, the President ______ had to resign. He is the first president to do so in the U.S. history.
A. Ronald Reagan B. Harry Truman
C. John F. Kennedy D. Richard Nixon.
36. ______ was elected president because in the late 1970s, the American society turned conservative.
A. Ronald Reagan B. Jimmy Carter
C. Richard M. Nixon D. George Bush
37. In America, the two major parties are really not very different today. But on economic issues, the ______ traditionally favors government intervention while the ______ stresses the role of the market more.
A. Democratic Party, Republican Party
B. Republican Party, Democratic Party
C. Whig Party, Democratic Party
D. Whig Party, Republican Party
38. According to the Constitution, the American President must take care that all laws be faithfully executed. To carry out this responsibility, he presides over ______ of the federal government.
A. the legislative branch B. the executive branch
C. the judicial branch D. the American Congress
39. According to the American Constitution, the Vice President shall be President of ______.
A. the Senate B. the Congress
C. the House of Representatives D. the Cabinet
40. The six goals set by President Bush in his "America 2000" Plan are all the following EXCEPT ______.
A. eliminating drugs and violence from the school
B. improving the nation’s high-school graduation rate to at least 80%
C. requiring students to demonstrate competency in English, mathematics, science, history and geography
D. ensuring that all adult Americans were literate
41. Although relatively small in area, Ireland is large enough to show distinct regional variations in ______.
A. climate B. ethnic minorities
C. religion D. language
42. Ireland’s population has been ______ during the past 100 years.
A. stable B. increasing
C. on decline D. doubled
43. New Zealand is about 1,500 km to the ______.
A. northeast of Australia B. southeast of Australia
C. northwest of Australia D. southwest of Australia
44. The first British settlers came to New Zealand in 1840 through ______, and they hoped to start model colonies by planned migration.
A. the New Zealand Company B. the British East India Company
C. a private immigration agency D. the Dutch East India Company
45. Canada is bounded on the north by ______, on the west by ______, and on the east by ______.
A. the Arctic Ocean, the Pacific Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean
B. Antarctica, the Pacific Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean
C. the Arctic Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean, the Pacific Ocean
D. Antarctica, the Atlantic Ocean, the Pacific Ocean
46. In 1971, the Canadian Government adopted a policy of ______, recognizing that cultural pluralism within a bilingual framework was the essence of the Canadian identity.
A. unilingualism B. multilingualism
C. biculturalism D. multiculturalism
47. According to the new federal Immigration Act (1978), the following are the fundamental objectives of Canadian immigration law EXCEPT ______.
A. family reunion
B. concern for refugees
C. promotion of the economic development of the country
D. preservation of British culture
48. Which of the following is the longest river in Australia?
A. The Murray. B. The Clutha.
C. The Swan River. D. The Shannon River.
49. The following animals are unique to Australia EXCEPT ______.
A. kangaroos B. emus
C. budgerigars D. koalas
50. The dominant aspect of Aboriginal culture was ______.
A. rock paintings and story-telling
B. religious ceremonies
C. the Dreamtime
D. the balance between the people and their environment
II. Answer the Questions. (30 points, 3 points for each)
Directions: Give a one-sentence answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding space on the Answer Sheet.
51. What is the cause of the decline of the British Empire?
52. Why is the English Civil War also called the Puritan Revolution?
53. What dose the British Parliament consist of?
54. Why did the American Civil War break out?
55. What are the two special powers of the Senate in America?
56. Why is the board of trustees which governs American colleges and universities composed primarily of laymen?
57. Under what treaty was modern New Zealand founded?
58. What happened to the French colony after the Seven Years’ War between Britain and France?
59. What happened after the English king was declared the head of the Church of Ireland, replacing the Pope?
60. How many political divisions are there in Australia? What are they?
III. Term Explanation. (20 points, 5 points for each)
Directions: Explain each of the following terms in English. Write your answers in the corresponding space on the Answer Sheet in around 40 words.
62. Whigs and Tories
63. Electoral College
64. "Manifest Destiny".